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Part 1 of 1 – Question 1 If the concept is truck, the prototype might be: A. a Ford pick up. B. bulldozer. C. gravel eighteen wheeler. D. personnel carrier. Question 2 If the prototype is block or ball, the concept is: A. construction. B. toy. C. child. D. play. Question 3 All major cities have a post office. Abilene is a major city; therefore, Abilene has to have a post office. This is an example of a(n): A. algorithm. B. heuristic. C. syllogism. D. prototype. Question 4 Algorithms are very helpful in finding solutions to problems because, although we may not understand them, they: A. were created by people who do understand all algorithms. B. allow us to arrive at an answer rapidly. C. are shortcuts. D. guarantee a correct solution if followed. Question 5 A heuristic can be very helpful in solving a problem because: A. the solution is always accurate. B. heuristics are the result of research. C. it may be a shortcut. D. a single heuristic can be applied to most problems. Question 6 Both Albert’s mother and father had dropped out of high school. His brother left school in the eighth grade. Based on the performance of his family members Albert does not expect that he will complete high school. He has developed a(n): A. availability heuristic. B. syllogism. C. algorithm. D. means-end analysis. Question 7 Creative thinking tends to be: A. divergent thinking. B. convergent thinking. C. functional fixedness. D. dependent on algorithms. Question 8 “How are a cat and a dog alike?” An answer to this question requires: A. crystallized intelligence. B. intrapersonal intelligence. C. fluid intelligence. D. Eastern intelligence. Question 9 “Who was the first vice president of the United States?” The correct answer to this question requires: A. crystallized intelligence. B. intrapersonal intelligence. C. fluid intelligence. D. Eastern intelligence. Question 10 Based on the theory of multiple intelligences by Gardner most people exhibit: A. intelligences which function in isolation. B. a single intelligence. C. one dominate intelligence. D. all eight intelligences in different degrees. Question 11 The use of the lateral prefrontal cortex during intelligence testing indicates that: A. a global “workspace” exists in the brain. B. there is little neuroflexibility. C. the prefrontal cortex is the central receiving area for all incoming stimuli. D. there is no significant difference between special and verbal tasks. Question 12 The experimental rats were being raised in separate environments. One group lived in the traditional cage in a quiet, but well lighted room. They were supplied with plenty of food and water. The second group inhabited “Rat Disney Land.” There were colorful toys, exercise wheels, and mirrors. The experimenters talked to the rats in the second group and demonstrated concern. Based on the results of previous research the researchers expected: A. the rats in the first group to exhibit depression. B. the rats in the second group to become hyperactive and unable to focus on a task. C. the rats in the second group to make a higher score on an intelligence test. D. the rats in the first group to make a higher score on a test of intelligence. Question 13 The most frequently used intelligence test in the United States is: A. the Stanford-Binet Scale. B. the Binet Intelligence Test. C. the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale – III. D. the Bergman Intelligence Scale. Question 14 The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale –III (WAIS-III) contains two parts: A. verbal and performance. B. written and verbal. C. measurement and written. D. performance and written. Question 15 One attribute that the Stanford-Binet, WAIS-III, and WISC-IV have in common is that they are all: A. timed. B. written. C. administered individually. D. group tests. Question 16 The entire class was in an uproar. The teaching assistant had proctored the exam while the professor was attending a conference and the test seemed unrelated to the chapters which they had studied. The students’ complaints are based on the test’s lack of: A. reliability. B. validity. C. aptitude. D. standardization. Question 17 The testing company has hired qualified people in the field to administer the new test bank to subjects of different ages and ethnic backgrounds. They need a sizable number of scores from inner city, urban, and country/small town subjects. Their goal is to gather sufficient data for test: A. validity. B. reliability. C. performance. D. standardization. Question 18 Nisa has grown up in a small village in the foothills. There was no electricity and water had to be hand pumped. They seldom saw people from the “outside.” When she entered school the bus had to pick her up at 6:30 am in order for her to arrive at school by 8:30 am. During the fourth grade the entire class was given a group intelligence test. Nisa did not score well because: A. the norms upon which the test was developed did not reflect her background. B. her background caused the relationship between reliability and validity to be inaccurate. C. she probably had difficulty learning to read. D. she did not understand test taking. Question 19 In their book The Bell Curve, Murray and Herrnstein supported their claim of intelligence differences between races as attributable to: A. the effect of environment on the development of intelligence. B. the extent to which intelligence is inherited. C. the lack of validity of intelligence tests. D. insufficient reliability of IQ scores. Question 20 One of the arguments against inherited racial differences in intelligence is based on data that shows: A. a college education reduces the gap between the IQ scores of white and black races. B. nutrition reduces the gap. C. scores for black test takers improve as they mature. D. white test takers plateau at about thirty-five-years of age. Reset Selection
Part 1 of 1 – Question 1 The energy which directs behavior into productive areas originates in: A. instinct. B. emotion. C. drive reduction. D. leptin. Question 2 As Marcia took her place in the classroom on the first day of class, a familiar feeling surged from inside of her. She found herself “scoping out the competition,” considering topics for the “best in the class” paper, and listening for an opportunity to add to class discussion on the first day. According to drive-reduction theory Marcia: A. will experience reduction in her competitive drive if she does well on the first exam. B. is presenting a secondary drive to compete. C. will establish a homeostatic condition and be less competitive as the class progresses. D. is presenting a primary drive to compete. Question 3 If motivation consists only of drive-reduction, what is the perfect state of a human being? A. Competitive, hard driving B. Not hungry, thirsty, no pain, absence of fear, basically a coach potato C. Constant change, always re-establishing homeostasis D. Gradual movement from primary to secondary drives Question 4 “I just can’t make myself study ahead for a test. I work better under pressure. Perhaps it is the fear associated with waiting until the last minute that gets me going.” This approach to motivation is best explained by: A. incentive approaches. B. drive-reduction approaches. C. arousal approaches. D. cognitive approaches. Question 5 Some children require a “carrot on a stick” to get them to clean their room, behave well in public places, or make good grades. This suggests that: A. the incentive approach pulls the child toward the goal. B. the drive-reduction approach guides the child to re-establish homeostasis. C. all behavior is controlled by outside rewards. D. external goals can explain human behavior. Question 6 Expectation plays an important role in: A. cognitive approaches to motivation. B. drive-reduction approaches to motivation. C. incentive approaches to motivation. D. arousal approaches to motivation. Question 7 Sandra is not really good at painting and drawing, but she loves to spend her spare time “dabbling” as she calls it. If her products are not successful according to aesthetic standards, why does she continue to draw and paint? A. She is attempting to reduce a primary drive. B. Her behavior is a result of extrinsic motivation. C. Her behavior is a result of intrinsic motivation. D. Drawing and painting satisfy her arousal level. Question 8 When applying Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs it is important to understand which of the following? A. Lower level needs must often be met before higher levels can be considered. B. Lower level needs can be inserted at any point. C. Self-actualization is seldom approached by anyone. D. Self-actualization can be recognized and measured objectively. Question 9 According to the James-Lange Theory, crying over spilled milk will result in: A. sorrow because you are crying. B. sorrow because the milk has been spilled. C. problem solving which will control the emotions. D. several indiscriminant emotions. Question 10 Cannon-Bard view emotion as more than a response to physiological arousal. They suggest that: A. the hippocampus and the spinal nerve produce emotion. B. both the cortex and the autonomic nervous system respond to the stimulus. C. emotion is the work of higher brain levels alone. D. isolated nerve stimuli activate the autonomic nervous system. Question 11 Donnie was on the verge of experiencing road rage. The teenagers in front of him were reckless and disrespectful. Suddenly he realized that one of the boys was his brother and he began to laugh. Donnie’s emotional response is best explained by: A. the James-Lange Theory of emotion. B. the Cannon-bard Theory of emotion. C. the Schachter-Singer Theory of emotion. D. the Affiliation Theory of emotion. Question 12 Billy Sue hated dresses but loved dogs, horses, turtles, lizards, and frogs. Her grandmother, who knew how little girls should look, dragged her to the children’s store and forced her into a lacy pink dress. Although Billy Sue scowled at her image in the mirror, grandmother was delighted. Grandmother’s behavior was based on her concept of: A. sexism. B. Billy Sue’s sex. C. Billy’s gender. D. Billy Sue’s gender role. Question 13 Verbal skills and muscular coordination have been observed to improve in women when: A. estrogen levels are relatively high. B. they are exposed to experiences requiring high level skills. C. pressure to perform is reduced. D. calcium levels are increased. Question 14 The biosocial approach suggests that gender differences are based on: A. the hormone and neurological differences between men and women. B. how men and women think about their environment. C. the physical ability of men to protect the home and of women to bare children. D. the cognitive ability of men to solve problems and of women to organize the home. Question 15 Sexual arousal in human beings is different from that of animals. It is clear that human sexual arousal can occur: A. only as the result of specific hormone changes. B. only during female ovulation. C. frequently in males, but seldom in females. D. as the result of many different stimuli including sights, smells, and sounds. Question 16 Sexual responses have been found to occur in the following pattern: A. orgasm, plateau, excitement, resolution. B. excitement, orgasm, plateau, resolution. C. excitement, plateau, orgasm, and resolution. D. resolution, excitement, plateau, orgasm. Question 17 In most cases of rape, the victim: A. has lured the rapist. B. knows the rapist. C. will suffer no lasting effect. D. is not treated violently. Question 18 Dolly is a cute little second grade girl with blonde curls and big brown eyes. She is very bright but not successful in school. She withdraws from her peers and is considered shy. If approached physically, she backs away and will not tolerate a hug from her teacher. Lately, more alarming behaviors have surfaced. Dolly has begun purposefully cutting herself with pieces of broken glass. Her teacher has referred her to the school counselor and suspects: A. child neglect. B. a mental disorder. C. sexual abuse. D. abandonment. Question 19 Chlamydia can be an insidious disease among young women because: A. there are no apparent symptoms. B. it attacks the skin on the face first. C. it often masks itself as simple menstrual cramping. D. it changes the texture of the skin. Question 20 It is possible to reduce the risk of contracting AIDs through: A. abstaining from sexual foreplay. B. covering areas of sexual contact with an antibacterial soap or cream. C. maintaining a long-term, monogamous relationship with a faithful partner. D. engaging in anal intercourse. Reset Selection
Part 1 of 1 – Question 1 In psychology, the study of personality focuses on: A. change. B. stability. C. external factors. D. learned factors. Question 2 Carl Jung’s idea of the collective unconscious states that we share: A. inherited universal ideas, wishes, and memories. B. common learning experiences in childhood or infancy. C. tendencies to sacrifice ourselves individually for the group. D. ideas that arise from, and are specific to, one’s own culture. Question 3 Which of the following categories was NOT a component of Gordon Allport’s trait theory? A. Cardinal traits B. Secondary traits C. Central traits D. Identity traits Question 4 The Big Five in personality theories refers to which of the following? A. A set of fundamental traits such as neuroticism and openness to experience B. The group of personality theorists who criticized Freud’s theory as too sexual C. The effect of positive reinforcement on acquiring new behaviors D. The number of stages in Freud’s theory of development Question 5 Shelby is a very outgoing person who likes being around other people and socializing with them. According to the Big Five trait theory of personality, Shelby would be considered to be: A. showing signs of her masculine archetypes in her collective unconscious. B. high on the stable and enduring personality disposition known as extraversion. C. conditioned through past reinforcements to be uncomfortable in social settings. D. using defense mechanisms to protect herself from feelings of inferiority. Question 6 Unlike psychodynamic approaches to personality, the learning approach emphasizes: A. latent personality structures. B. self-actualization processes. C. the outer person. D. biological traits. Question 7 To compare one person’s test scores to the scores of all other people who took the test, psychologists must know something about the test’s: A. projective nature. B. subjective nature. C. length. D. norms. Question 8 The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory-2 (MMPI-2) is a test used primarily to measure: A. psychological disorders. B. spatial relationships. C. verbal intelligence. D. unconscious motives. Question 9 Such tests as the Rorschach Inkblot Test and the Thematic Apperception Test are examples of: A. projective measures. B. self-report measures. C. objective measures. D. observational measures. Question 10 Observing what a person does under carefully controlled circumstances is a main feature of: A. the Thematic Apperception Test. B. behavioral assessment. C. Rorschach methods. D. the MMPI-2. Question 11 Evaluations of a particular belief, person, object, or idea describe a person’s: A. attitudes. B. motivation. C. predispositions. D. biases. Question 12 The salesperson in medication ads dresses to look like a doctor because: A. she has tested the product directly. B. the product was developed by physicians. C. FCC regulations demand this. D. the salesperson’s credibility is enhanced. Question 13 In social psychology, attributional processes refer to: A. deciding whether behavior is due to the person or the situation. B. spreading responsibility among a group of people. C. following the command of an authority figure. D. choosing sides during a competition or contest. Question 14 Trish is overweight. When you meet her for the first time, you feel contemptuous. This is an example of: A. stereotyping. B. ethnocentrism. C. discrimination. D. prejudice. Question 15 Psychologist Claude Steele is widely noted for his research on stereotype threat, which refers to a: A. fear of groups for which we hold negative stereotypes. B. fear that members’ behavior will confirm stereotypes about their group. C. belief that threatening groups are easier to stereotype than average groups. D. concern that stereotyping can lead to hostile interactions between groups. Question 16 The observational learning approach states that stereotypes and prejudices are acquired through: A. repressing of wants and needs excessively. B. experiencing maturation of innate ideas. C. watching and imitating a model’s behavior. D. pairing conditioned and unconditioned stimuli. Question 17 Which of the following characteristics will NOT reduce negative stereotyping in a contact situation? A. Intimacy B. Cooperation C. Equal status D. Independence Question 18 According to the mere exposure effect, we are most likely to feel attracted to people when: A. they are very similar to us. B. they are very different from us. C. we have never met them before. D. we have met them on previous occasions. Question 19 Research on interpersonal attraction has shown that people will be more attracted to each other if: A. they have totally opposite beliefs and personalities. B. their backgrounds, interests, and values are very similar. C. one of them is physically attractive and the other is not. D. each has some characteristic that the other wished he or she had. Question 20 Survey research has revealed that one of the most important qualities that people look for in friends is: A. attractiveness. B. loyalty. C. independence. D. intelligence. Reset Selection
Part 1 of 1 – Question 1 Psychologists who specialize in psychoneuroimmunology investigate the relationship between: A. neurochemistry, psychological factors, and stress. B. neural pathways, stress, and emotional stamina. C. the immune system, coping skills, and resistance. D. the brain, psychological factors, and the immune system. Question 2 Important positive events such as a birthday party for a child, graduating from high school, getting married, or anticipating a first grandchild: A. are reinvigorating, but not stressful. B. help relax the body and balance against life’s stressors. C. can produce stress similar to negative events. D. allow true stressors to be placed in the background. Question 3 Posttraumatic stress disorder is the result of: A. only major catastrophes. B. activities related only to war. C. witnessing loss of life in any situation. D. major catastrophes and severe personal stressors. Question 4 “Hey, girl, you are looking good today!” This is an example of a(n): A. uplift. B. change of pace. C. natural stressor. D. personal stressor. Question 5 “It all happened for the best,” “I would never have left that dreadful job if they had not laid me off,” and “Yes, I miss mom’s home cooking, but I am going to school and building my future.” These are examples of: A. avoidant coping. B. problem-focused coping. C. emotion-focused coping. D. learned helplessness. Question 6 Individuals who use problem-focused coping will deal with a problem or stressor by: A. making changes in their behavior. B. accepting support through sympathy. C. changing their point of view concerning the stressor. D. attempting to manage their emotions. Question 7 Stress has the ability to cause the immune system to: A. be under stimulated. B. attack rather than support the body. C. repair itself. D. increase its resources. Question 8 Mr. Buss is a business executive. He has been dedicated to the company for ten years and worked his way up the corporate ladder to the position of third vice president. He is the first to arrive and the last to leave each day. He has no patience with those who might waste his time with trivialities. Mr. Buss is typical of: A. the Type B behavior pattern. B. theType A behavior pattern. C. an avoidant coper. D. a time urgent personality. Question 9 Dr. Kyle shared the newspaper clipping with his class. “This is an unusual case, but I believe the punishment phase of the trial would have been different in another state. The crime was committed, but the defendant is not in touch with reality most of the time.” Dr. Kyle is referring to variations in the definition of mental disorder as: A. a deviation from the average. B. a deviation from the ideal. C. an inability to function effectively. D. a legal concept. Question 10 Jeannie was a delightful little girl who made a remarkable change during adolescence. Her parents expected the usual teenage rebellion, but Jeannie had become dark and morose. Her skin had a deathly pallor, and she became very thin. They feared that she would attempt suicide. They were relieved to find that she suffered a hormone imbalance. Jeannie’s diagnosis is based on the: A. medical perspective. B. psychoanalytic perspective. C. behavioral perspective. D. cognitive perspective. Question 11 “The origin of the abnormal behavior is not my concern. We will attack the behavior as it stands and work together to change it, thereby reducing the anxiety you are experiencing.” This statement would be typical of the: A. medical perspective. B. psychoanalytic perspective. C. behavioral perspective. D. cognitive perspective. Question 12 It wasn’t a test day, there were no oral reports due, and the class was getting ready to view a video. Regardless of the relaxed nature of the class, Baxter suddenly felt his muscles tighten and his heart rate increase as if he had had a sudden fright. It was happening again. These symptoms are typical of: A. a panic disorder. B. a phobia. C. a generalized anxiety disorder. D. an obsession. Question 13 One common aspect of among dissociative disorders is: A. memory of childhood abuse. B. escape from an anxiety-producing situation. C. a painful physical symptom. D. departure from reality. Question 14 “Honey, you know how we have always wanted to be in business for ourselves? Well, today I did it! I have rented a 3000 square foot business, hired six employees, ordered office furniture; we are in business.” During the first three weeks, Todd was surprisingly successful, but one morning he was so down he could not get out of bed. He starred at the ceiling day after day while his wife attempted to rescue their investment. Todd appears to be suffering from: A. depression. B. bipolar disorder. C. illusion of grandeur. D. a conversion disorder. Question 15 The goal of psychodynamic therapy is to: A. change thought processes from negative and dysfunctional to positive and constructive. B. elevate unresolved conflicts and primitive impulses to conscious awareness effective for change. C. prepare the patient for appropriate drug therapy. D. change behavior through reward and punishment. Question 16 According to behavioral treatment approaches, abnormal behavior is learned through: A. thoughts based on the perception of events. B. vicarious experiences. C. rewards and punishments. D. conflict experiences in early childhood. Question 17 Albert Ellis depicts the relationship between irrational belief and negative emotions through use of: A. a contingency contract. B. dialectical theory. C. the A-B-C model. D. observational learning. Question 18 A remarkable change occurred in mental institutions during the late 1950s. Patients became less agitated and many became “out patients” rather than custodial patents. These noticeable changes were the results of: A. antidepressants. B. shock therapy. C. ECT. D. antipsychotic drugs. Question 19 Nicky’s mood swings are controlling her life. First, she is euphoric, creative, and needs little sleep. She then sinks into despondency. Her physician may prescribe: A. lithium to reduce the mania without worsening the depression. B. Prozac to elevate her moods. C. Lexapro to balance her changes of reality. D. Paxil to decrease the number of mood swings. Question 20 Electroconvulsive therapy may produce immediate relief from depression, but: A. may result in schizophrenia. B. can also change the hemisphericity of the brain. C. is not a long-term improvement. D. should not be used more than once. Reset Selection